12-03-2012, 04:00 AM
Yeah, that's purely a verse numbering mistake, and it is the same in the 4th edition. It makes little difference other than comparing to the verse numbering in the Aramaic text, but it should be noted either way. I know there's at least one other place where this occurs as well, but I can't think of it off the top of my head. I should make note next time I find it.