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Translations Compared: Eastern or Western?
Hi Chuck,
i am always wondering about you, because if a 4 gospel version was existing, it does not mean that the Peshitta did already exist!
You said:
"As to what Mr. Burkitt says here: "Ephraem used the Diatessaron in the main as the source of his quotation, although "his voluminous writings contain some clear indications that he was aware of the existence of the separate Gospels, and he seems occasionally to have quoted from them."

For me it looks like this: in an early stage there was a 4 gospel version in use, the Diatessaron was made from them and not from the Peshitta!
As you wrote by your self: " The Diatessaron was made from the Aramaic Gospel's about 160 A.D. and there has always been the separate Aramaic Gospels since at least 78 A.D. " Again this is not the Peshitta right? The Peshitta is a complete NT canon of 22 books, not only 4 gospels!

My question was: why did the Peshitta replaced so late the 4 gospel version? Do you have any idea about that?
If you say that Burkitt was wrong, so you have to explain why and must give facts for your position, not what you believe....
I have Burkitt's book and he quotes a lot of examples, you must deal with this examples to proof if he is right or wrong!

Kind regards

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Re: Translations Compared: Eastern or Western? - by mickoy - 02-04-2013, 09:17 PM

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