04-24-2012, 10:28 PM
Im no expert, forgive me if im inaccurate about anything, but...
It seems like theres a general view on this board that the pericope adulterae is a fake, due to its peshitta omission and no early greek manuscript has it, which makes sense.
1 John 5:7 isnt in the Peshitta either, which we know due to Greek mistranslations that the Greek came from the original ARAMAIC, so the Peshitta will always be the main base...which makes sense.
But the Western 5 we also all know was not in the Peshitta....yet its in Andrew's AENT and nobody has a problem with it....why do we all seem to bend the rules for these particular books?
Forgive me for any ignorance, its just been a nagging problem in my head....
It seems like theres a general view on this board that the pericope adulterae is a fake, due to its peshitta omission and no early greek manuscript has it, which makes sense.
1 John 5:7 isnt in the Peshitta either, which we know due to Greek mistranslations that the Greek came from the original ARAMAIC, so the Peshitta will always be the main base...which makes sense.
But the Western 5 we also all know was not in the Peshitta....yet its in Andrew's AENT and nobody has a problem with it....why do we all seem to bend the rules for these particular books?
Forgive me for any ignorance, its just been a nagging problem in my head....