2nd Peter 3:10

[judge]

I am not interested in getting into the details of the interpretation too far. I just thought it was interesting that the "best" Greek based scholarship via Wallace has come full circle to the position easily seen in the Peshitta, and the only way to explain the two Greek traditions is the flexibility in the structure of the Peshitta.

Doug

Except that the peshitta of 2 Peter that we have today was translated from greek in maybe the 5th or 6th century IIRC.
The Church of the East never possessed an Aramaic copy of 2 Peter. Aphrahat for example never quotes from it.

So eventually the COE made translations as they still considered it to be of some benefit.