2. Tess 2 and specifically question about verse 7 in context

[Luc Lefebvre]

So, if 'inequity' would mean 'without law' this phrase should be consistent. However, the explicit phrase 'without law' simply exists in Syriac Aramaic.

I don't think inqiquity means "without law" but trangression of law. As I understand the Greek, anomo's is the closest word to try and get across the same idea, although is more so implies being against or in place of the law.

since Christians are freed through the body of Christ from observing Torah

No where in Scripture does such a statement exist. Any "free from the law" statements within the Scripture are found in Romans (7:3 and 8:1-2) and neither indicate that it's okay to not adhere to the commands of our Lord. On the contrary, all His righteous laws are eternal (Psalm 119:160).

My understanding of Acts 15 is not so much that they were free to sin (Torah defines sin - Romans 7:7 - and sin is transgression of Torah - 1 John 3:4) but where they should start as they begin to join the commonwealth of Israel and are no longer strangers to the covenants (Ephesians 2:12). You can't be one people with one mind if you have two sets of laws. No, you must grow and become one together under one Lord with one God and one Law. Otherwise, you bear the fruit of dissention and faction, fruits of the flesh (Galatians 5:20).