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2. Tess 2 and specifically question about verse 7 in context
#6
distazo Wrote:I believe that the Greek which has a-nomian, is translated back to hebrew and then taken as 'torah-less-ness'
However, the Peshitta has not the word for 'Law' (musa) but an other word which is translated as iniquity.

Hi Distazo,

As far as I understand it, in the Semitic mind, iniquity is always a reference to transgression of Torah. I believe that when carried over into Greek, this had to be clarified for the audience so that the term was not left open to interpretation.

Luc
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Re: 2. Tess 2 and specifically question about verse 7 in con - by Luc Lefebvre - 03-29-2012, 05:55 PM

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