08-18-2011, 05:49 AM
Hi Otto,
Could you please show what this verse reads in the latest edition of the AENT if you have one. I just have the 1st edition you sent me here.
Also...if no man can say Y'shua is "lord" but by the Holy Spirit as is taught in 1 Corinthians 12:3...and that word there "Marya" means just a "lord"...then how is it that we see Y'shua saying that when He returns, many will be saying to Him, "lord, lord"...Matt 25:11, Luke 13:25...yet He will be telling them, that He never knew them?
If Jesus did not know these people who call Him "lord", how can they be calling Him "lord" by the Holy Spirit, since 1 Corinthians teaches us they can't do so?
I believe that "Marya" is to be translated as both Roth & Baucsher indicate, and which Paul Younan attests to as the correct translation. It can't be the same term as a regular "lord"...as I have shown above and line up with the teaching of Scripture.
If we say that "Marya" is the same thing as "Maran" in the Aramaic Scriptures...then 1 Corinthians 12:3 "Marya" and Matthew 25:11, Luke 13:25 "Maran" is a contradiction in teaching by the Holy Spirit...and we know that is never true.
"...no man can say that Jesus is the Lord, but by the Holy Spirit." 1 Cor 12:3
"Many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in your name? and in your name have cast out devils? and in your name done many wonderful works? And then will I profess to them, I never knew you: depart from me, you that work iniquity." Matt 25:11
The Greek shows no distiction of "lord" as both show the word kurios in these verses...whereas the Aramaic does show a distinction of the words used by Paul, Matthew and Luke, as inspiried by the Holy Spirit to write down the words.
Blessings.
Could you please show what this verse reads in the latest edition of the AENT if you have one. I just have the 1st edition you sent me here.
Also...if no man can say Y'shua is "lord" but by the Holy Spirit as is taught in 1 Corinthians 12:3...and that word there "Marya" means just a "lord"...then how is it that we see Y'shua saying that when He returns, many will be saying to Him, "lord, lord"...Matt 25:11, Luke 13:25...yet He will be telling them, that He never knew them?
If Jesus did not know these people who call Him "lord", how can they be calling Him "lord" by the Holy Spirit, since 1 Corinthians teaches us they can't do so?
I believe that "Marya" is to be translated as both Roth & Baucsher indicate, and which Paul Younan attests to as the correct translation. It can't be the same term as a regular "lord"...as I have shown above and line up with the teaching of Scripture.
If we say that "Marya" is the same thing as "Maran" in the Aramaic Scriptures...then 1 Corinthians 12:3 "Marya" and Matthew 25:11, Luke 13:25 "Maran" is a contradiction in teaching by the Holy Spirit...and we know that is never true.
"...no man can say that Jesus is the Lord, but by the Holy Spirit." 1 Cor 12:3
"Many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in your name? and in your name have cast out devils? and in your name done many wonderful works? And then will I profess to them, I never knew you: depart from me, you that work iniquity." Matt 25:11
The Greek shows no distiction of "lord" as both show the word kurios in these verses...whereas the Aramaic does show a distinction of the words used by Paul, Matthew and Luke, as inspiried by the Holy Spirit to write down the words.
Blessings.