How does the AENT 4th edition compare to the others?

[Jerry]

Jerry, I don't know why you want to translate "marya" as "of-the-Lord". Where does the "of" come from? Are you speculating that "marya" could be an adjective rather than a noun?
bar Sinko

Greetings bar Sinko,

I appreciate your interest in word-for-word translation, although it does require some acclimation to the Aramaic syntax. I presume you are referring to where I used "of-the-Lord" in Acts 2:36. The "of" comes from the "d" prefix, seventh word down:

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So if one presumes (mor:yo-) to be "the-lord", or more likely "that-the-lord", then (d:mor:yo-) would be either "of-the-lord" or "of-that-the-lord". So the problem is not with the "of", but perhaps in understanding the nature of the "of" in the Aramaic syntax.

For Act 2:36, it might be helpful to look first at the English syntax, then the Aramaic syntax:

"... the Alah made him of-that-the-Lord, and the Anointed ..." (English syntax)
"... of-that-the-Lord and the Anointed, made him the Alah ..." (Aramaic syntax)

Best regards