08-12-2011, 01:22 AM
bar Sinko Wrote:Jerry, I don't know why you want to translate "marya" as "of-the-Lord". Where does the "of" come from? Are you speculating that "marya" could be an adjective rather than a noun?
I'd like to know the answer to this question as well.
Thirdwoe Wrote:I see major bias in the way in which Jerry is going about to "translate" these verses.
*this*
I'm leaning towards this explanation myself. My opinion is based on prior discussions on this board where Jerry seemed to be searching for any sort of evidence to justify what appeared to me to be his denial of the established Aramaic/Syriac usage of MRYA, as demonstrated ad nauseum in both the primary texts and patristic history.
I don't really like to delve into theological wars here, but when someone alters words to fit into an agenda, that's when I get irked...
+Shamasha