08-08-2011, 04:51 PM
Thirdwoe, the Aramaic does not distinguish between "indefinite" and "definite" nouns, as English does; so "a" vs. "the" is determined by context. So it is not some unique thing I am doing only for Matthew 22, but something that is done throughout the NT, with almost all singular emphatic nouns.
(mala-ko-) "an-angel" or "the-angel"
(n:biyo-) "a-prophet" or "the-prophet"
(tal:miy:do-) "a-disciple" or "the-disciple"
(mor:yo-) "a-lord" or "the-lord"
Just paraphrasing here, but if you see a verse that reads something like the following, only one Aramaic word (mala-ko-) is used for both "an-angel" and "the-angel".
An-angel appeared to Joseph and told him to go to Egypt, then Joseph did as the-angel said.
I share your concern that an "interpretation" needs to be made between "a" vs "the" on Aramaic emphatic nouns, but basic English custom allows us to make the correct determination in most cases. For example, I think nearly everyone would make the same determination as I did above with the "angel" example.
(mala-ko-) "an-angel" or "the-angel"
(n:biyo-) "a-prophet" or "the-prophet"
(tal:miy:do-) "a-disciple" or "the-disciple"
(mor:yo-) "a-lord" or "the-lord"
Just paraphrasing here, but if you see a verse that reads something like the following, only one Aramaic word (mala-ko-) is used for both "an-angel" and "the-angel".
An-angel appeared to Joseph and told him to go to Egypt, then Joseph did as the-angel said.
I share your concern that an "interpretation" needs to be made between "a" vs "the" on Aramaic emphatic nouns, but basic English custom allows us to make the correct determination in most cases. For example, I think nearly everyone would make the same determination as I did above with the "angel" example.