Hebrews 4:8

[Andrej]

The Hebrew Masorete OT lists names in this fashion:

y:how-shu-a = Joshua (KJV)
y:how-shu-a bin nuwn = Joshua son of Nun (KJV)

yei-shuw-a = Jeshua (KJV)
yhuw-ah = salvation (KJV)

If the Peshitta lists the name of Jesus / ye-shuwa similarly to "Jeshua" and "salvation" of the OT; I guess it just seems odd that the Aramaic, a sister language to Hebrew, would not distinquish "Joshua" in a fashion similar to that of the Hebrew OT, something like y:how-shu-a. These are not just subtle vowel variations between "Joshua" and "Jesus", but consonant variations as well.

It seems odd because most other proper names in the Peshitta NT have a close similarity to that of the Hebrew Masorete. So I guess it is possible that the Greek LXX, which had apparently morphed the two names together, might have had more influence on the Peshitta NT than what I had previously thought, or at least for Hebrews 4:8.

i apologize if i was somwhat unclear. i will try to show what i meant:

Jesus (English) comes from Iesous (Greek).
Iesous (Greek) comes from Yeshu (Aramaic).
Yeshu (Aramaic) comes from Yeshuah/Yehoshuah (Hebrew).

Joshua (English) comes from Yeshuah/Yehoshuah (Hebrew).

There is definite proof for all these. What i wrote before also supports this. Bear in mind, Jesus was a quite common name. i think there was also a "son of Jesus" in Acts 13:6. Of course, when we call upon the name of Jesus, it does not matter who else bears that name, and we are not using a "magic formula", but the knowledge of who he is, what he did and what he offers makes our prayer valid.

Thus Joshua and Jesus are the same name originally, much like e.g. James and Jacob. Though there may or may not have been a small variation in pronounciation. i cannot tell (but i don't think so), and both Greek and Aramaic did not carry any different pronounciation across.