Um....are we sure Maryah always = LORD?

[Andrej]

The one in Matthew 13:7 is (moreh), which is grammatically "singular construct". This is usually best rendered as "the-lord-of", or in the case of 13:7: "the-lord-of the-house".

In Matthew 22: 43 & 45 (mor'yah) is used in reference to David's "my lord", not in reference to YHWH. In at least two other instances, Yeshua (Jesus) is referred to as (mor'yah). Grammatically, (morayah) would logically be the plural of (mor'yah), and it is clearly non-YHWH specific.

Oddly, whether or not (mor'yah) is anthing more than "the lord", depends upon what (morah) is. For example, if (mor'yah) is simply "the lord", then (morah) would have to be the absolute form "lord". But is it?

Thanks, but i am even more uneducated than that. You are saying that in Mt. 13:7 Marya is used, right? Is this the only time Marya is used as "singular cunstruct"?

Matthew 22:43-45 is no issue for me, even if it uses Marya for LORD and Lord. After all, that's the message. The Lord is Jesus, Jesus is Marya, Marya is the LORD. Do you say is is clearly non-YHWH specific because of grammatical / linguistic reasons, or because you think the context makes a distinction between LORD and Lord?