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Um....are we sure Maryah always = LORD?
#7
Jerry Wrote:
Andrej Wrote:You are saying that in Mt. 13:27 Marya is used, right? Is this the only time Marya is used as "singular cunstruct"?
No, as Aaron alluded to earlier, (marya) is not used in 13:27, but instead (mare). (mare) is used many times, and is clearly the "singular construct", easily rendered as "the-lord-of" in all cases.
thanks. So, is there a way of saying "the-Marya-of" in aramaic which is not "mare", like marya-e (i have no idea of aramaic, i just want to understand the issue)? Not that it would make lots of sense, i am just wondering.
Jesus is the one true God of the Bible.
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Re: Um....are we sure Maryah always = LORD? - by Andrej - 01-08-2011, 04:53 AM

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