06-22-2013, 04:23 AM
This seems to be a contradiction, where it says that no man has seen Alaha, but some have seen him!
But, was it The Father Himself, who is God, or The Word, who is also God that they have seen?
I believe it was The Word, whom The Father has always chosen to reveal Himself in and through, and The Word, who is both with and is, God (John 1:1) manifested in the flesh in The Messiah.
The Messiah existed before Abraham, though, as He said, and it was as The Word, pre-incarnate, who is also God, and who, as The Messenger/Word of MarYa/Alaha", He has always revealed The Father unto mankind, who can't be seen by them in their non-glorifed state.
Let's consider John 1:18 in the Aramaic text, with some interpretation in the (brackets).
"Alaha (the Father), no man has ever seen. The only Alaha (The Word/Messiah), He who is in the bosom of The Father; He declares."
Makes sense to me.
.
But, was it The Father Himself, who is God, or The Word, who is also God that they have seen?
I believe it was The Word, whom The Father has always chosen to reveal Himself in and through, and The Word, who is both with and is, God (John 1:1) manifested in the flesh in The Messiah.
The Messiah existed before Abraham, though, as He said, and it was as The Word, pre-incarnate, who is also God, and who, as The Messenger/Word of MarYa/Alaha", He has always revealed The Father unto mankind, who can't be seen by them in their non-glorifed state.
Let's consider John 1:18 in the Aramaic text, with some interpretation in the (brackets).
"Alaha (the Father), no man has ever seen. The only Alaha (The Word/Messiah), He who is in the bosom of The Father; He declares."
Makes sense to me.
.