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Um....are we sure Maryah always = LORD?
#26
Thirdwoe Wrote:"Kurios" (Lord) was used by the Greeks in the Septuagint translation of the Hebrew text, which had "Adoni" (Lord) in place of YHWH. This was long before the Aramaic Peshitta OT was translated. When the Aramaic OT was translated from the Hebrew, they chose to use the form "Marya" (a contraction word) Mar-Ya, not "Mari" or "Maran", which are not contractions, and both mean (Lord). They could have easily used "Mari" or "Maran"...but didn't. What do you think was the reason?

Also, can you please give all the verses which calls an Angel, Marya? I want to study it a bit. And there is only ONE Deity, and He has manifested Himself in/through Eshu' M'shikha (Jesus Christ).

Blessings,
Chuck

I agree that marya clearly is a distinction between mari/mar/maran etc. What about 2 Cor 3:18 where we have 'marya ruwha'.
If it is a contraction, it would say: "YHWH spirit" or "YHWH the spirit". What does Roth have there? <!-- sSmile --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="Smile" title="Smile" /><!-- sSmile -->
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Re: Um....are we sure Maryah always = LORD? - by distazo - 06-19-2013, 05:42 AM

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