Thread Rating:
  • 0 Vote(s) - 0 Average
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
the living god
#1
I've just read an article by david bausher on the name of God, especially interesting was the translation of ena na, -I am the living God. This means that lamsa was correct in his transslation of exodus 3-14.
Reply
#2
I am sure Lamsa was correct in his own mind, but he is not translating from the Peshitta Tanakh, nor is he translating from the Hebrew Masoretic text. I don't know, is Lamsa translating from a source text other than those?

In the Hebrew, it is written ( `eh:yeh `asher `eh:yeh ) and correspondingly so in the Peshitta Tanakh as well.

Neither text is written as Lamsa claims, which is ( ahiah ashar high )
Reply
#3
And how is it that ( `enau` `nau` ) is translated as "I am the living God"? Those two words are simply pronouns. Only in a few contexts, such as Matthew 22:32, do they contribute to the realization of the living God.

And in my opinion, (`eh:yeh asher `eh:yeh ) is poorly translated as "I AM THAT I AM". It seems likely to be an embellishment to fit a pre-conceived idea. If one researches the other 40 occurrances of ( `eh:yeh ) in the Hebrew text, then one will find its proper meaning. For grammar buffs, it is a first person singular qal imperfect verb.
Reply
#4
How should it be translated then?
Reply
#5
sean Wrote:How should it be translated then?

THe same happens here in John 9:9 where the former blind mand says: "I AM!" Well, he uses the same words as Yeshu did.

This correctly translates to 'It is I!"

Now some translators, see here a divine link to the Hebrew 'I AM THAT I AM' but I fail to see that.
Reply
#6
In the Hebrew OT, (aniy) is "I-am"

"I-am (aniy) YHWH, the-God-of Abraham your-father, and-the-God-of Isaac ..." - Genesis 28:13


In the Aramaic NT, (nau) is "I-am"

"Myself, I-am (nau) the-God-his of-Abraham, the-God-his of-Isaac ..." - Matthew 22:32


In the Hebrew OT, (eh:yeh) is "I-to-be" or "I-will-be" or "I-shall-be". But not "I-am".

"I-to-be (eh:yeh) of-which I-to-be (eh:yeh)" ... say to-the-sons-of Israel, 'I-to-be' (eh:yeh) sent-me to-you." - Exodus 3:14
Reply
#7
What you translated "Of myself," should actually be rendered as "that I", because the daleth is, in this case, a cue to start a quote. So it comes back to "ena na" for the Matthew reference.
Reply
#8
Thanks for all the replies, I just have to get round to learning aramaic. Thankfully there is this board, where people who can read aramaic can guide me.
Is this the only place in the old testament that lamsa has translated from another bible other than the peshitta ?
Reply
#9
Aaron S Wrote:What you translated "Of myself," should actually be rendered as "that I", because the daleth is, in this case, a cue to start a quote. So it comes back to "ena na" for the Matthew reference.
I have revisited the "ena" pronoun again and you probably have a valid point. I'm not quite sure yet though on the proper syntax for "ena na", it might be better as "I-that I-am".

Even so, I am not yet convinced that the Aramaic "first person" pronouns "ena" and "ch:nan" are not best rendered as "myself" and "ourselves", respectively. With "ena na" being "myself, I-am".
Reply


Forum Jump:


Users browsing this thread: 1 Guest(s)