"MarYah deception" ???

[Aldred Emmans]

I became interested as a Plymouth Brother in the Jehovah/LORD problem and started to learn Hebrew some years ago re. I understood that YHWH was given various incorrect pointings in the Hebrew so that the reader read for example Adonai (the Lord) instead of YHWH. Eventually I formed the opinion that the pointings were incorrect so that as in the Hallelujah Scriptures English I can now read YHWH as in YHWH is my shepherd. But I wanted further clarity when coming to the new testament. The fact that 7,000 references to Marya in the old testament were an alteration from YHWH in the Aramaic old testament makes no difference.

Now coming to the new testament I am not happy with the Aramaic retention of the altered name. I understand that some are saying Mar Yah is the meaning of marya but this is beside the point.

Here is an example of the further confusion that the above makes. Acts 15:17 So that the remainder of mankind and all the Gentiles will seek YHWH, those who my name is called over them, said Master YHWH who made all things. Here Roth has translated the same original Aramaic in two ways. As the Aramaic is not a quote of the original, we now have confusion multiplied. Amos 9:11-12. Verse 12 ends and all the gentiles on whom My Name is called, declares YHWH who does this.

My conclusion must be that while Roth has tried to unravel many big questions he has failed to answer the question "Does the original take YHWH intact into the new testament". Of course the KJ version implies YHWH where it says "As was spoken by the prophet of the Lord" in Matthew etc. My HS bible says Paul preached that Yeshua was the Ben of YHWH. Acts 9:20. But does this have any manuscript authority? Is not Son of God correct, rather than Son of YHWH?

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