"MarYah deception" ???

[Jerry]

Jerry, i think we are not to forget that Pauls theory makes a lot more sense for one reason, which is the apparent avoidance of other supposed forms of Marya in scripture. If Paul was incorrect, why do we not find other forms to be as common as Marya? i'm no grammar freak, but i guess you get my point. Paul lines it up, whereas other theories seem to build on too little. The thousands of times Marya clearly refers to YHWH are too much weight to ignore. It is the practical that is convincing to me.
Sory if i made no sense.

Andrej,
My argument is not that (MauR-Yau`) does not align with YHWH. It does, as it aligns with Yeshua as well. And for what its worth, (Mau-Rau`) happens to align with Elohiym, "Father Lord of-the-Heavens".

I just happen to think (MauR-Yau`) is more akin to "the-Lord" than it is a proper noun like MarYah.