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Transliterate or not to transliterate?
#2
Personally, I think if the reader is at least given ample heads-up by means of a Glossary or translation glosses or footnotes, it is in no way improper to give alternative spellings/words for a proper noun. The idea of 'standards' today is extremely overemphasized and creates a false mindset toward these things.

But the Aramaic form of Egypt is Mesrein (and the Hebrew is Mitsrayim). I think at least if one is trying to keep the original words, the original pronunciation should be striven for: Grecian would be Yawnayith rather than Javnayith or the like (J does not exist in Aramaic or Hebrew; V rather than W arose from modern Hebrew pronunciation).

It does take great consideration though, in that one must decide between referring to a Greek as in accordance with the Aramaic tongue (Yawnaya) or as in accordance with the Greek tongue (Hellen). So there's many factors behind choosing to opt for Aramaic with respect to this. But to say that Egypt is any more nonpartisan than Misrayin or Mitsrayim would be falling pray to the false standards, as Egypt clearly derives from the Greek Aiguptas. But one must never put aside the fact that the source from which we're translating is at least a spoken Aramaic tradition (if one does not subscribe to Aramaic primacy), and this is what is being represented by translation.

I hope that helps in this decision <!-- sSmile --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="Smile" title="Smile" /><!-- sSmile -->
Peace and blessings
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Re: Transliterate or not to transliterate? - by Aaron S - 11-02-2010, 09:51 PM

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