07-15-2010, 04:45 PM
I have been interested in Aramaic for a long time but my knowledge of it is admittedly poor.
My question is about the English translation of 2 Aramaic words using the single English word foreknowledge. Foreknowledge occurs 4 times in English 2 times in noun form (Acts 2:23 and 1 Peter 1:2) and 2 times in verb form (Romans 8:29 and 11:2).
Are these 2 Aramaic words used in combination anywhere else in the Bible (Old or New Testaments)?
If so how are they translated there and why are they not translated "foreknowledge"?
If they do appear elsewhere, how was it decided that they should be translated "foreknowledge" in only 4 places and not everywhere?
Thank you in advance for your help.
Clarence
My question is about the English translation of 2 Aramaic words using the single English word foreknowledge. Foreknowledge occurs 4 times in English 2 times in noun form (Acts 2:23 and 1 Peter 1:2) and 2 times in verb form (Romans 8:29 and 11:2).
Are these 2 Aramaic words used in combination anywhere else in the Bible (Old or New Testaments)?
If so how are they translated there and why are they not translated "foreknowledge"?
If they do appear elsewhere, how was it decided that they should be translated "foreknowledge" in only 4 places and not everywhere?
Thank you in advance for your help.
Clarence