05-21-2010, 09:17 PM
Most translations seem to use the KJV as their background text, and are reluctant to stray from it. Hence, the tendency to carry forward the word "large", or some derivation of it, as used in the KJV. My take on it would be:
ch:zaw `ay:leyn k'thiy:bon k'eth:b'eth l:kuwn b'i`y:day
Ye-see what-to-that written? I-wrote to-you in-my-hands.
If the first part is not a rhetorical question, which is hard to know for sure, then it would be like this:
Ye-see, what-to-that written, I-wrote to-you in-my-hands.
ch:zaw `ay:leyn k'thiy:bon k'eth:b'eth l:kuwn b'i`y:day
Ye-see what-to-that written? I-wrote to-you in-my-hands.
If the first part is not a rhetorical question, which is hard to know for sure, then it would be like this:
Ye-see, what-to-that written, I-wrote to-you in-my-hands.