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Bartimaeus, son of...
#1
Shlama Achai,

I just noticed that the Greek translation parts ways in Mark 10:46.
The Aramaic says Timai Bar-Timai, but the Greek says Bar-Timai, the son of Timai.
If the Greek text was providing a translation of Bar-Timai, it would say something along the lines of 'which is interpreted', without which it reads very strangely: like saying "Let me introduce you to Son-of-Timai, who is the son of Timai."

Here the Peshitta reading makes more sense.
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#2
Shlama,


I think Stephen brought this up once before, but thanks for the reminder! There is definitely a strange thing going on with the Greek....

and no pun intended, but did you see the further discrepency in verse 51 and 52 concerning Timai's demand and Yeshuwa's repsonse?

in the Peshitta:
in 51 DEKHZE "that i may see"
in 52 KHZEE "see! / Behold"

Yeshuwa's response could be taken either in the sense of literally "SEE!" or as in the common usage of "Behold..."

now take a look at the Greek:
in 51 ANABLEPSO "to see"
in 52 HUPAGE "go your way"

the link between the man's request and Yeshuwa's reply is completely lost in the Greek. the Aramaic has a smooth connection between what the man wants and what Yeshuwa does for him. the Greek almost sounds as if He is saying, "Now get outta here!"


Chayim b'Moshiach,
Jeremy
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#3
Also in verse 52, it ends in Greek translations with "and he followed Yeshua in the way",
yet this is quite different in Peshitta: "he went in the way"

Can one even remotely get what the Greek targums from [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]0xrw0b 0wh Lz0w[/font] ?

It's somewhat ironic too...
Aramaic says: See, and he goes on his way
Greek says: Go, and he follows him
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