04-13-2010, 01:32 AM
crosswayokc Wrote:Does Jesus 100% of the time in the New Testament only use masculine pronouns and phrases concerning the Holy Spirit?He's basically answered your question here; the noun and it's modifiers must agree in gender.
Paul Younan Wrote:The word for spirit in Aramaic is grammatically feminine. When using verbs and adjectives around gramatically feminine nouns they must also be in the feminine form.
crosswayokc Wrote:I did just a little research yesterday and it seems that Jesus even in the Aramaic uses a masculine pronoun only (huw) for the Holy Spirit just like the Greek (ekeinos) does.
Also keep in mind in the Greek, eikenos is modifying parakletos/comforter, a masculine noun not the word spirit.
It does not mean the HOLY SPIRIT is "male" or "neuter" only that is a principle of the language and it's grammar. Pairing eikenos with Spirit is incorrect pronoun antecedent agreement. The pronoun is eikenos and the correct antecedent is parakletos, the incorrect antecedent is pneuma/spirit.
Similarly, in the example that Jerry gives (Matay 1:20), the Aramaic "he" pronoun is properly paired with YAHSHUA as it's antecedent, not Rukha.