04-05-2010, 07:35 AM
Maybe we (including our greek primacy friends) do not really consider the power of this.
When I was in a religious organization for many years, which I abandoned because I found out they were sitting on the chair of Jeshua and even more, there were really nice guys around. One of them, a great speaker, had the habit, of now and then, saying a full verse, in rhyme.
However, he prepared it. Get the picture? People always smile and awe at that!
Now imagine Jeshua. He, at several places, gives right, without preparation verses like this;
"Foxes have lairs and
birds of the sky have shelters, but The Son of
Man has nowhere to lay his head"
If he said it in Greek, it would have sounded like the English.
This clearly IS an Aramaic verse, and one have a triple consonate wordplay!
("Litheleh" / "Lith Leh" / "Mitlileh")
Litheleh Niqeh Ait Lhun
w'l'Parakhtha d'Shmaya Mitlileh
L'Breh Din d'Anasha Lith Leh -
Ayka d'Nisamukh Resheh
Now, if there is some -unknown- rule, which REALLY really, reaaallly would convince me, that Aramaic just is a nice 'automatic wordplay' <!-- s
tupid: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/withstupid.gif" alt="tupid:" title="Stupid" /><!-- stupid: --> language, let a Greek primacists, show me whether all those hundreds of wordplays, also exist in the Harklean Aramaic text (which is a translation of Greek)
What early churchfathers said, or theologican (who seldomly speak BOTH aramaic as Greek) does not and did never impress me. But something like above, would!
(Paul's rhyming can be found at e.g. 1Timothy 5:10)
b.t.w. what is exactly wrong with saying 'semitic poetry'? Maybe my english lacks here, but I don't get that.
When I was in a religious organization for many years, which I abandoned because I found out they were sitting on the chair of Jeshua and even more, there were really nice guys around. One of them, a great speaker, had the habit, of now and then, saying a full verse, in rhyme.
However, he prepared it. Get the picture? People always smile and awe at that!
Now imagine Jeshua. He, at several places, gives right, without preparation verses like this;
"Foxes have lairs and
birds of the sky have shelters, but The Son of
Man has nowhere to lay his head"
If he said it in Greek, it would have sounded like the English.
This clearly IS an Aramaic verse, and one have a triple consonate wordplay!
("Litheleh" / "Lith Leh" / "Mitlileh")
Litheleh Niqeh Ait Lhun
w'l'Parakhtha d'Shmaya Mitlileh
L'Breh Din d'Anasha Lith Leh -
Ayka d'Nisamukh Resheh
Now, if there is some -unknown- rule, which REALLY really, reaaallly would convince me, that Aramaic just is a nice 'automatic wordplay' <!-- s
tupid: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/withstupid.gif" alt="tupid:" title="Stupid" /><!-- stupid: --> language, let a Greek primacists, show me whether all those hundreds of wordplays, also exist in the Harklean Aramaic text (which is a translation of Greek)What early churchfathers said, or theologican (who seldomly speak BOTH aramaic as Greek) does not and did never impress me. But something like above, would!
(Paul's rhyming can be found at e.g. 1Timothy 5:10)
b.t.w. what is exactly wrong with saying 'semitic poetry'? Maybe my english lacks here, but I don't get that.