09-19-2009, 07:09 AM
Hi Dawid, always a pleasure... <!-- s
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Hmm..what do you make of even the greek NT using Aramaic words rather than Hebrew? I am not 100% but am pretty sure that all the semitic NT words are Aramaic.
This seems to me, a reasonable argument for peshitta primacy. Other wise we have the greek either replacing Hebrew words with Aramaic in a direct translation from an hebrew original (this seems quite unlikely) ..or the greek being translated very early from an Aramaic translation of an Hebrew original. This too seems unecessarily complex , especially in the absense of any Hebrew versions (apart from some of Matthew which seem to date from the middle ages)
Ok, but why would this preclude a Galileans having a different accent in Aramaic as well? Couldn't this be equally explainable in the context of Aramaic? (perhaps I misunderstood?)
--><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="" title="Smile" /><!-- s --> Dawid Wrote:Shalom Christina,
The "Hebrew is Aramaic" argument fails to hold water to me, since both the Septuagint and Eusebius use an entirely different word to refer to Aramaic.
Hmm..what do you make of even the greek NT using Aramaic words rather than Hebrew? I am not 100% but am pretty sure that all the semitic NT words are Aramaic.
This seems to me, a reasonable argument for peshitta primacy. Other wise we have the greek either replacing Hebrew words with Aramaic in a direct translation from an hebrew original (this seems quite unlikely) ..or the greek being translated very early from an Aramaic translation of an Hebrew original. This too seems unecessarily complex , especially in the absense of any Hebrew versions (apart from some of Matthew which seem to date from the middle ages)
Quote:We also have the evidence of Peter's accent. This was only applicable in the context of Hebrew, where Galilean accents became an issue because of Synagogue usage. Galileans were forbidden from reading the Torah in Judean synagogues because of their accent when speaking Hebrew. The Judeans were afraid they would mispronounce the Torah and render a different meaning to it.
There are so many more possibilities.
Ok, but why would this preclude a Galileans having a different accent in Aramaic as well? Couldn't this be equally explainable in the context of Aramaic? (perhaps I misunderstood?)