08-29-2009, 02:26 PM
Shalom Dawid,
Got be quick, but what must be remembered is that there is a difference between Aramaic Primacy and Peshitta Primacy. Revelation, and the other 4 disputed books are outside of the scope of Peshitta Primacy (for obvious reasons) but are still within the scope of Aramaic Primacy.
I for one am not in the least bit convinced that Greek is the original language of the book of Revelation, and even many Greek primacists assert that Yokhanan's original was actually Aramaic.
There are plenty of reasons why but before getting into an actual textual analysis (when I have the time!), I first want you to ponder this:
OK, let's stop right there for a minute. Who is "the Lord God" talking to? The Shlikha Yokhanan, right? (Assuming he was indeed the author of this book of course). Wasn't Yokhanan an Aramaic-speaking Jew from Galileela? Didn't Yeshua speak ARAMAIC to Yokhanan on a daily basis before He ascended into Heaven? So then why would He suddenly switch to Greek years later after He ascended? Quite frankly if He did, I doubt Yokhanan would have believed that it was really His Master who was speaking to him!
Here's the thing, no matter how fluent you are in a 2nd or 3rd, ect. language the fact is when you pray to God you do so in your native language (unless you're praying in public with/for people who don't speak your native language). Now tell me, if God should ever speak audibly to you, what language do you think He'll speak? Your native language or your 2nd, 3rd, ect. language?
The fact of the matter is the "God-breathed" original is Aramaic, and this passage in particular deals a death blow to the suggestion that Yeshua ever spoke Greek to any of the NT authors:
This "Hebrew" is actually the Jerusalem dialect of Aramaic (then called "Hebrew"), not the Hebrew language of Moshe, because earlier on we are told:
This also deals a death blow to Hebrew Primacy, unless it can be proven that the language of Moshe was the native language of the NT authors.
The "word of God" is exactly that - in the language which He spoke it, and where the Brit Khadasha is concerned it's impossible for this language to be anything other than Aramaic. Besides all the textual evidence presented on this forum, this alone (which quite frankly is just simple common sense which is seriously lacking in popular western scholarship!) is enough to convince me beyond a shadow of a doubt that Aramaic is the original language of the Brit Khadasha.
Got be quick, but what must be remembered is that there is a difference between Aramaic Primacy and Peshitta Primacy. Revelation, and the other 4 disputed books are outside of the scope of Peshitta Primacy (for obvious reasons) but are still within the scope of Aramaic Primacy.
I for one am not in the least bit convinced that Greek is the original language of the book of Revelation, and even many Greek primacists assert that Yokhanan's original was actually Aramaic.
There are plenty of reasons why but before getting into an actual textual analysis (when I have the time!), I first want you to ponder this:
Revelation 1:8 Wrote:I am the Alpha and the Omega," says the Lord God, "who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty.
OK, let's stop right there for a minute. Who is "the Lord God" talking to? The Shlikha Yokhanan, right? (Assuming he was indeed the author of this book of course). Wasn't Yokhanan an Aramaic-speaking Jew from Galileela? Didn't Yeshua speak ARAMAIC to Yokhanan on a daily basis before He ascended into Heaven? So then why would He suddenly switch to Greek years later after He ascended? Quite frankly if He did, I doubt Yokhanan would have believed that it was really His Master who was speaking to him!
Here's the thing, no matter how fluent you are in a 2nd or 3rd, ect. language the fact is when you pray to God you do so in your native language (unless you're praying in public with/for people who don't speak your native language). Now tell me, if God should ever speak audibly to you, what language do you think He'll speak? Your native language or your 2nd, 3rd, ect. language?
The fact of the matter is the "God-breathed" original is Aramaic, and this passage in particular deals a death blow to the suggestion that Yeshua ever spoke Greek to any of the NT authors:
Acts 26:14 Wrote:And we all fell on the ground. And I heard a voice saying to me in Hebrew, 'Shaul, Shaul, why are you persecuting me? It is hard for you to kick against the goads.'
This "Hebrew" is actually the Jerusalem dialect of Aramaic (then called "Hebrew"), not the Hebrew language of Moshe, because earlier on we are told:
Acts 21:39-40 Wrote:Paulos said to him, "I am a Yehudi man from Tarsus, the notable city of Cilicia in which I was born. I beg you [to] allow me to speak to the people." And when he allowed him, Paulos stood on the stairs and was motioning to them with his hand. And when they quieted down, he spoke with them in Hebrew and said to them,
This also deals a death blow to Hebrew Primacy, unless it can be proven that the language of Moshe was the native language of the NT authors.
The "word of God" is exactly that - in the language which He spoke it, and where the Brit Khadasha is concerned it's impossible for this language to be anything other than Aramaic. Besides all the textual evidence presented on this forum, this alone (which quite frankly is just simple common sense which is seriously lacking in popular western scholarship!) is enough to convince me beyond a shadow of a doubt that Aramaic is the original language of the Brit Khadasha.
Shalom, Shlama, Salaam & Yiasou.