Thread Rating:
  • 0 Vote(s) - 0 Average
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
2 Thessalonians 3:14 separate or 'mark' him?
#1
The Aramaic verse, has 'separate him' but the greek, a word which means 'mark him' (to avoid him/her).

Is this difference explainable regarding leaving out an aramaic letter or a misreading?

Thanks!
Reply
#2
Shlama akhi "distazo",

These are two totally different words "semeioo" and "parash". "Parash" can mean "separate" or "appoint". I'm wondering if Zorba took the "appoint" meaning and therefore chose a word that means "mark" or "note" accordingly. "Semeioo" still seems to be a bad choice whether the "separate" meaning or the "appoint" meaning of "parash" is followed. The Greeks seem to have had "distinguishing" in mind while the Jews/Arameans had "separating" in mind and this joins better with the next phrase of the verse... "and have no intimacy with him" (Murdock)...or "and be not mixed with him" (Etheridge)...or "and do not associate with him" (Lamsa). Unfortunately, Lamsa followed the Greek with "note that man". Hmmm....wonder why he missed the most natural meaning of "parash" in this instance! <!-- sHuh --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/huh.gif" alt="Huh" title="Huh" /><!-- sHuh --> Maybe akhay Paul and Andrew can help us tie some loose ends here.....

Shlama w'Burkate, Bro. Larry
Reply


Forum Jump:


Users browsing this thread: 1 Guest(s)