Thread Rating:
  • 0 Vote(s) - 0 Average
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
Colossians 1:16 - Peshitta/Greek Variance?
#1
I stumbled across an apparent variance between Greek and Aramaic for Colossians 1:16 and wondered if anyone could clear it up for me...

The Greek verse appears to end with something to the effect of: "everything was created through him and FOR him" (the English translations seem to all use this same general phrasing)... However, when looking at the Peshitta text, the Aramaic apparently reads more to the effect of "all things by his hand and through him were created" (Etheridge). The Aramaic here appears to totally leave off the concept that all things were created FOR Him which seems very direct in the Greek text (from a non Greek scholar relying on multiple English translations etc.).

Any thoughts on this variation between texts would be most appreciated.

Shlama,
-b
Reply
#2
Shlama Brantana, <!-- sSmile --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="Smile" title="Smile" /><!-- sSmile -->

You know... it's rather striking that the KJV translated the Greek 'eis' to the word 'for' here. Someone might correct me here but it's the only instance I know of. Besides, what's wrong with the concept of all things being created BY Him and THROUGH Him. "Through Him" just implies, as far as I can tell, that the Father and the Holy Spirit weren't just taking a nap while all of this creation work was going on. A couple of commentaries I referred to consider the 'for' translated from the Greek text to mean 'for His purpose.' I wonder if our good friend Zorba did this to avoid double-talk since 'dia' means 'by' and 'through.' That wouldn't look very good. <!-- s:biggrin: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/biggrin.gif" alt=":biggrin:" title="Big Grin" /><!-- s:biggrin: --> So much for "Colossians from the original Greek"...huh? <!-- s:lol: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/laugh.gif" alt=":lol:" title="Laugh" /><!-- s:lol: -->

Shlama w'Burkate, Larry Kelsey
Reply
#3
...

Whether the scribes "Aramis" & "Zorba" or the KJV translators got it wrong here in their rendering of this passage is a question that I haven???t looked at, but as one can see below, there is abundant proof in the Scriptures to attest to the fact that the Creation of YHWH was created for the Creator and not just 'by' or 'through' Him...The reason for the Creation is also spelled out as well.

Isaiah 43:21
This people have I formed for Myself; they shall show forth My praise.

Isaiah 43:7
Even every one that is called by My Name: for I have created him for My glory, I have formed him; yea, I have made him.

Proverbs 16:4
YHWH hath made all things for Himself: yea, even the wicked for the day of evil.

Romans 11:36
For of Him, and through Him, and to Him, are all things: to whom be glory for ever. Amen.

Hebrews 2:10
For it became Him, for whom are all things, and by whom are all things, in bringing many sons unto glory, to make the Captain of their salvation perfect through sufferings.

Revelation 4:11
???for You have created all things, and for Your pleasure they are and were created.

???
Reply
#4
...

Quote:You know... it's rather striking that the KJV translated the Greek 'eis' to the word 'for' here. Someone might correct me here but it's the only instance I know of.

It is rendered often this way in the KJV. I counted up to 30 places in the four gospels alone, before I got tired of counting them...

...
Reply


Forum Jump:


Users browsing this thread: 1 Guest(s)