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Peshitta vs. Greek "Love"
I'm new to the topic, but understand from Lanaster's PDF that there is only one generic word for "love" in the Peshitta text. I am aware of the Greek use of the terms (agape, phileo, etc.), but am curious about how this works out in the Aramaic.

1. I don't know much about Hebrew, but from what I could find, there are several words in Hebrew for "love". If Aramaic is so similar, why does Lanaster claim there is only one word? (or is he saying that there is only one word in the infamous passage in John, which is obviously true in the Peshitta) I was able to find two words for love in Aramaic in an online Lexicon, but I don't know enough about the language to know if they are significantly different or an any way similar to the Greek words.

2. If Aramaic (with one word for love) is the source for the Greek translations, how is it that groups significantly physically separated and without comparing notes (Alexandrians/Bystantines/Westerners) were able to consistently assign the Greek terms for love in their texts? It would seem that, without some kind of explicit marker to differentiate them, the Byzantines and and Alexandrians would have essentially randomly assigned the words. Is anyone aware of any difference in Greek texts between the assignment of agape and phileo?

Thanks in advance for your help.
John 21 makes no sense with respect to the Greek random choices of Agapeo and Phileo, so we can only conclude that the Greek texts are more modifications and revisions of some early Greek version and those revisions were based on re-translation of the original Aramaic text. Among the Greek documents forty percent of the verses are significantly different and some have missing verses, but they still reflect the original context as found in the Peshitta.


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