10-15-2008, 04:16 PM
Shlama all,
I know this question has been asked before, but I'm really interested in getting to the bottom of how this mistranslation happened...
The term "antichirst" has been slapped on so many people throughout western church history, always as an insult towards one's enemies (a practice I assume is absent in eastern church history). For example Martin Luther called the Pope "antichrist" and the Pope called him "antichrist". Western church fathers have taught about a coming future "antichrist" as do Evangelical Protestants today, while Augustine spoke of an allegorical "antichrist" spirit which indwells unbelievers, and preterists insist that "antichrist" refers to the 1st century Gnostic cults. What's up with this cult of "antichrist"? The Greek word only appears in 4 NT verses, BUT the Peshitta doesn't say "antichrist", it says "false messiah", here are the verses:
GREEK TEXTS:
(1 John 2:18) Children, it is the last hour, and just as you heard that the antichrist is coming, so now many antichrists have appeared. We know from this that it is the last hour.
PESHITTA:
(1 John 2:18) My sons, it is the last time and according to what you have heard, a false messiah will come. Even now there are many false messiahs and from this we know that it is the last time.
GREEK TEXTS:
(1 John 2:22) Who is the liar but the person who denies that Jesus is the Christ? This one is the antichrist: the person who denies the Father and the Son.
PESHITTA:
(1 John 2:22) Who is a liar, except he who denies that Yeshua is the Messiah? This one is a false messiah. He who denies the Father also denies the Son.
GREEK TEXTS:
(1 John 4:3) but every spirit that does not confess Jesus is not from God, and this is the spirit of the antichrist, which you have heard is coming, and now is already in the world.
PESHITTA:
(1 John 4:3) And every spirit that does not confess that Yeshua has come in the flesh is not from God, but this [spirit] is from the false messiah, about whom you have heard that he would come and is now already in the world.
"Antichrist" appears in one more verse - 2 John 1:7. Now we all know that the Aramaic versions of the W5 that we have today are translated from Greek. Both Philoxenius and Harkel choose to stick with the Greek "antichirst" (as they should have) instead of conform the Peshitto reading with Peshitta readings of "false messiah" in 1 John:
GREET TEXTS:
(2 John 1:7) For many deceivers have gone out into the world, people who do not confess Jesus as Christ coming in the flesh. This person is the deceiver and the antichrist!
HARKLEAEN/CRAWFORD:
(2 John 1:7) For many deceivers have gone out into the world, those who do not confess that Jesus [the] Messiah has come in the flesh. This [one] is a deceiver and an antichrist.
Bottom line is "antichrist" was never appeared in the the original Bible! This Greek mistranslation gave rise to one of the most influential and contravercial labels in the history of Christianity! How did this happen, and why?
I know this question has been asked before, but I'm really interested in getting to the bottom of how this mistranslation happened...
The term "antichirst" has been slapped on so many people throughout western church history, always as an insult towards one's enemies (a practice I assume is absent in eastern church history). For example Martin Luther called the Pope "antichrist" and the Pope called him "antichrist". Western church fathers have taught about a coming future "antichrist" as do Evangelical Protestants today, while Augustine spoke of an allegorical "antichrist" spirit which indwells unbelievers, and preterists insist that "antichrist" refers to the 1st century Gnostic cults. What's up with this cult of "antichrist"? The Greek word only appears in 4 NT verses, BUT the Peshitta doesn't say "antichrist", it says "false messiah", here are the verses:
GREEK TEXTS:
(1 John 2:18) Children, it is the last hour, and just as you heard that the antichrist is coming, so now many antichrists have appeared. We know from this that it is the last hour.
PESHITTA:
(1 John 2:18) My sons, it is the last time and according to what you have heard, a false messiah will come. Even now there are many false messiahs and from this we know that it is the last time.
GREEK TEXTS:
(1 John 2:22) Who is the liar but the person who denies that Jesus is the Christ? This one is the antichrist: the person who denies the Father and the Son.
PESHITTA:
(1 John 2:22) Who is a liar, except he who denies that Yeshua is the Messiah? This one is a false messiah. He who denies the Father also denies the Son.
GREEK TEXTS:
(1 John 4:3) but every spirit that does not confess Jesus is not from God, and this is the spirit of the antichrist, which you have heard is coming, and now is already in the world.
PESHITTA:
(1 John 4:3) And every spirit that does not confess that Yeshua has come in the flesh is not from God, but this [spirit] is from the false messiah, about whom you have heard that he would come and is now already in the world.
"Antichrist" appears in one more verse - 2 John 1:7. Now we all know that the Aramaic versions of the W5 that we have today are translated from Greek. Both Philoxenius and Harkel choose to stick with the Greek "antichirst" (as they should have) instead of conform the Peshitto reading with Peshitta readings of "false messiah" in 1 John:
GREET TEXTS:
(2 John 1:7) For many deceivers have gone out into the world, people who do not confess Jesus as Christ coming in the flesh. This person is the deceiver and the antichrist!
HARKLEAEN/CRAWFORD:
(2 John 1:7) For many deceivers have gone out into the world, those who do not confess that Jesus [the] Messiah has come in the flesh. This [one] is a deceiver and an antichrist.
Bottom line is "antichrist" was never appeared in the the original Bible! This Greek mistranslation gave rise to one of the most influential and contravercial labels in the history of Christianity! How did this happen, and why?
Shalom, Shlama, Salaam & Yiasou.