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"antichrist" how did that happen?
#1
Shlama all,

I know this question has been asked before, but I'm really interested in getting to the bottom of how this mistranslation happened...

The term "antichirst" has been slapped on so many people throughout western church history, always as an insult towards one's enemies (a practice I assume is absent in eastern church history). For example Martin Luther called the Pope "antichrist" and the Pope called him "antichrist". Western church fathers have taught about a coming future "antichrist" as do Evangelical Protestants today, while Augustine spoke of an allegorical "antichrist" spirit which indwells unbelievers, and preterists insist that "antichrist" refers to the 1st century Gnostic cults. What's up with this cult of "antichrist"? The Greek word only appears in 4 NT verses, BUT the Peshitta doesn't say "antichrist", it says "false messiah", here are the verses:

GREEK TEXTS:

(1 John 2:18) Children, it is the last hour, and just as you heard that the antichrist is coming, so now many antichrists have appeared. We know from this that it is the last hour.

PESHITTA:

(1 John 2:18) My sons, it is the last time and according to what you have heard, a false messiah will come. Even now there are many false messiahs and from this we know that it is the last time.

GREEK TEXTS:

(1 John 2:22) Who is the liar but the person who denies that Jesus is the Christ? This one is the antichrist: the person who denies the Father and the Son.

PESHITTA:

(1 John 2:22) Who is a liar, except he who denies that Yeshua is the Messiah? This one is a false messiah. He who denies the Father also denies the Son.

GREEK TEXTS:

(1 John 4:3) but every spirit that does not confess Jesus is not from God, and this is the spirit of the antichrist, which you have heard is coming, and now is already in the world.

PESHITTA:

(1 John 4:3) And every spirit that does not confess that Yeshua has come in the flesh is not from God, but this [spirit] is from the false messiah, about whom you have heard that he would come and is now already in the world.

"Antichrist" appears in one more verse - 2 John 1:7. Now we all know that the Aramaic versions of the W5 that we have today are translated from Greek. Both Philoxenius and Harkel choose to stick with the Greek "antichirst" (as they should have) instead of conform the Peshitto reading with Peshitta readings of "false messiah" in 1 John:

GREET TEXTS:

(2 John 1:7) For many deceivers have gone out into the world, people who do not confess Jesus as Christ coming in the flesh. This person is the deceiver and the antichrist!

HARKLEAEN/CRAWFORD:

(2 John 1:7) For many deceivers have gone out into the world, those who do not confess that Jesus [the] Messiah has come in the flesh. This [one] is a deceiver and an antichrist.

Bottom line is "antichrist" was never appeared in the the original Bible! This Greek mistranslation gave rise to one of the most influential and contravercial labels in the history of Christianity! How did this happen, and why?
Shalom, Shlama, Salaam & Yiasou.
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#2
Christina Wrote:, and preterists insist that "antichrist" refers to the 1st century Gnostic cults.


Well I am preterist and i wouldn't take that view. I dont even think there is any evidence of 1st century "gnostic cults".
The people continually rebuked in the NT are Judaizers



Quote:What's up with this cult of "antichrist"? The Greek word only appears in 4 NT verses, BUT the Peshitta doesn't say "antichrist", it says "false messiah",

Makes sense; we know from Josephus IIRC that there were false messiahs in the first centurty.
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#3
Shlama Judge,

I agree with you concerning what you wrote, although I'm a futurist I don't think that these passages above can be taken to refer to "end times" things. And Jews claiming to be the Messiah (false messiahs) does make more sense than gnostics.

However I still would like to know how the mistranslation "antichristos" occurred, perhaps it'll remain a mystery, I just wonder what alterior motives those Zorbans had by choosing to translate it as "antichristos" instead of "psuedo-christos" like they should've.
Shalom, Shlama, Salaam & Yiasou.
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#4
Shlama Khati Christina,

While I agree the "false messiah" reading in 1 John is better, I am not sure "anti-christos" is a mistranslation in the W5. Let's look at what the ANTI part of that title means since we all know the rest of that term very well...

anti a primary particle
Transliterated Word TDNT Entry
Anti 1:372,61
Phonetic Spelling Parts of Speech
an-tee' Preposition

Definition
over against, opposite to, before
for, instead of, in place of (something)

instead of
for
for that, because
wherefore, for this cause

Most of us assume the Greek term is referencing AGAINST MESSIAH, and surely the FALSE Messiah, whomever or whatever he is, can be said to be against Y'shua, his opponent.

Note however also that the second meaning of ANTI is "in place of something". Since there is only one true Son of Yah, anything "in place of him" must be FALSE, by definition, and this dovetails with Rav Shaul's discussion in Thess--he who stands in the place of Elohim, and by extension, Meshikha.

So, unless I am missing something, I don't see a real transmission problem. However I will go with "false Messiah" rather than the loaded term "anti-Christ" any day of the week. What do you think?
Shlama w'burkate
Andrew Gabriel Roth
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#5
Shlama,
I have understood the term anti-Christ to be a good rendering for the Hebrew phrase "mashiach tachat" or "in-place-of Messiah.' What is confusing is the English use of "anti-" as "opposed to" vice "in-place-of." "In-place-of" aligns quite well with "false," in my understanding.

Wayne


Andrew Gabriel Roth Wrote:<snip>
Note however also that the second meaning of ANTI is "in place of something". Since there is only one true Son of Yah, anything "in place of him" must be FALSE, by definition, and this dovetails with Rav Shaul's discussion in Thess--he who stands in the place of Elohim, and by extension, Meshikha.

So, unless I am missing something, I don't see a real transmission problem. However I will go with "false Messiah" rather than the loaded term "anti-Christ" any day of the week. What do you think?
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#6
...

Could it be that what is being spoken of in these verses is a pseudo-anointing or false-anointing that the false teachers where operating under the influence of in the latter end of the early church times...

And Y'shua said that before He returned, there would arise many false-prophets doing many false-miracles and lying-signs and wonders.... deceiving many.

The Apostle John says that there were many false-prophets/teachers operating under a false-anointing among the believers that would lead them astray and no doubt these where the heretic Gnostic groups and their first leaders.

And this seems to be the idea of what is being spoken of in respect to the final false-messiah person, who would deceive the whole world with all manner of lying signs and wonders???so close to the real that even the Elect could be deceived...if it were possible...

Only those who know the real thing can tell when a counterfeit comes along, but those who don???t can very easily fall for it.
...
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