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Mattai 28:1 A question regarding the word 'first of the week
#28
Greetings Paul, if possible I would like to stick to what the Peshitta says and not what man says.
To quote your own words "He rose on the 1st day of the week (Sunday) early in the morning before dawn....as the Scriptures plainly say....
If the women waited till after the sabbath to visit the tomb I am still hoping to get a response as to why they were walking on the sabbath to the tomb?
If it was 'twilight of the sabbath now in the evening' which as stated precedes the first day, again why were they walking?
The reason I am asking these questions is because the argument has been presented that 'the twilight of the sabbath' must be the end of the sabbath because the scriptures (Peshitta) says so. If as stated, the Peshitta has primacy over the Greek or other writings, this translation brings with it something to question, i.e. it's authenticity. Now by this, I mean it could be the Peshitta itself OR the translation.
As we know in the world system of Christianity, the phrase 'first day of the week' has been at the forefront of much doctrine, e.g. Sunday worship, Sunday sabbath, doing away with the law (Torah), etc, etc, etc.

Mark
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Re: Mattai 28:1 A question regarding the word 'first of the week - by markt - 08-12-2008, 06:44 AM

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