Posts: 142
Threads: 15
Joined: Nov 2007
Reputation:
0
I wasn't sure in which section to post this in, and thought Mistranslations is closer to the subject matter than General. But it is really my kind request for a proper translation or explanation.
Etheridge: "Matthew 1:25 and knew her not until she had given birth to her son, the firstborn; and she called his name Jeshu."
Is there some grammatical reason in the Aramaic text of Peshitta justifying this reversing of "her firstborn son" to "her son, the firstborn" ?
Shlama,
Jerzy
Posts: 786
Threads: 61
Joined: Nov 2003
Reputation:
1
Shlama Akhi Jerzy,
The Greek and Aramaic texts have "her son, the firstborn", though it is normal English practice to put the adjective describing a noun before the noun. Hebrew also follows the same word order as the Aramaic in the OT:Compare 1 Chron 8:30 & 9:36 rwkbh wnbw -"his son the firstborn" with Mat. 1:25 -arkwb hrbl -"her son the firstborn". The LXX Greek of the verses in Chronicles follow the Semitic word order: kai uiov autou o prwtotokov- "and his son the firstborn", as does the Greek verse in Matthew: ton uion authv ton prwtotokon -"her son the firstborn". The same Greek phrase occurs in Luke 2:7 also.
It is interesting also that the word pattern found in the Greek of Mat. 1:25 and Luke 2:7 -"def. article, noun, def. art., adjective" is found nowhere in Classical Greek -("PRAGMATICS OF THE COMPLEX DP IN ANCIENT GREEK" -EIRIK WELO,UNIVERSITY OF OSLO) or even extra-Biblical Koine Greek.
The Greek of The NT and The Greek of The LXX are in a class by themselves, it seems.
Dave
Posts: 2,812
Threads: 271
Joined: Sep 2003
Reputation:
2
Hi Jerzy,
Technically the translation should be "firstborn son", as "Bukhra" (firstborn) is an adjective. Etheridge seemed overly influenced by the word order in the Aramaic which is "her son, the firstborn". However in Aramaic an adjective always follows the noun it references, so there should be no comma there....just "firstborn son."
The title "Bukhra", by the way, does not necessarily mean there were more sons. Even today in only-child families, the single child is still referred to as the "bukhra". (blessed)
+Shamasha Paul
Posts: 142
Threads: 15
Joined: Nov 2007
Reputation:
0
Paul, Dave, Thank you. It was quite helpful. One can always count on your linguistic comments.
I asked because I was wondering if Etheridge had some agenda here, e.g. stressing the fact that Yeshu is The Firstborn, but not necessarily with relation to Maryam.
Dave, would you say that this particular word order in Greek of MT 1:25 is yet another proof that NT Greek is a translational Greek?
Shlama,
Jerzy
Posts: 786
Threads: 61
Joined: Nov 2003
Reputation:
1
Shlama Akhi Jerzy,
I would say the Greek NT word order in general is Semitic (Verb-subject, noun-adjective) and that the (Definite Article, Noun, Definite Article, Adjective) examples
which do not occur in non-Biblical Greek are strong indicators that the Greek NT is translational Greek, as is The LXX.
I have much better demonstrations of Aramaic primacy in my translations, in almost every NT book, illustrated using Dead Sea Scroll Aramaic script alongside Greek words, demonstrating how a Greek translator misread one letter, or sometimes two Aramaic letters, to create a Greek reading which differs significantly from the Peshitta reading. Many Greek variant readings can also be explained in the same way. Greek readings cannot very well explain Peshitta readings when they differ.
There are over 120 such illustrations with several hundred more notes showing Aramaic primacy. I have no doubt there are hundreds more to be mined.
Blessings,
Dave
