John 19:19 (YHWH?)

[Paul Younan]

The point was the same as the one made in G'linah, "I would that you were hot or cold..." They were saying you should either speak Lashon HaQodesh or become completely apostate and Hellenized.

Which means what? The majority were speaking neither Lashon HaQodesh, nor Greek.....right?

"Why Aramaic", was the question.

This seems obvious to everyone here on this forum, but you. The people spoke Aramaic. I'm not talking about the zealots who wrote the Mishnah, the minority who were trying to resurrect some sort of neo-Hebrew.

I'm talking about the masses....the same ones they are complaining about when asking the immensely important, "Why Aramaic?"

You don't ask if the problem don't exist. You don't write about it unless it's a significant problem.

If everyone was happily speaking neo-Hebrew (Mishnaic) then the Rebbe wouldn't have complained about it in writing.

I fail to see how this supports your position that the language spoken in the Holy Land during the 1st-century was Mishnaic Hebrew. It actually supports the Aramaic position.