John 19:19 (YHWH?)

[Dawid]

I beg to differ. This was during the Hebrew revival. Hebrew was being brought back to life, and this was an argument for speaking Hebrew. Much like the later Hebrew revival, it took a while. It was a contention to those who were speaking Aramaic that they ought to join those speaking Hebrew.

The few people speaking Mishnaic Hebrew (note, not Biblical Hebrew) were a minority, Akhi.

No matter how you spin this, none of Messiah's words as preserved in even the Greek manuscripts is Mishnaic (or Biblical) Hebrew. They are Aramaic.

I already gave a logical reason for the Mashiakh's words being in Aramaic in the Greek texts. Unfortunately, you appeared to be incapable of comprehending my argument.

For the difference between Biblical and Mishnaic Hebrew, I pointed some of this out before. It was influenced by Aramaic, for one. It is clear that it is the result of a revival of Hebrew, since it is essentially Aramaicized Hebrew.

Shalom,
Dawid