John 19:19 (YHWH?)

[Dawid]

How about Luke 22:15, where it clearly uses the infinitive absolute followed by a finite verb to convey emphasis? this is another exclusively Hebrew form.

Do you consider the Epic of Gilgamesh (Akkadian), or the Amarna Letters from Byblos (Canaanite), "Hebrew?"

I don't think you know Syriac, or Hebrew for that matter, particularly well at all. You sound like you're cutting and pasting from somewhere, or using someone else's ideas.

Do you think Hebrew popped up out of nowhere or something?

Hebrew I'm fair with. Syriac...I can say "shlama." That's about the extent of it.
Pardon me. I should not have said "exclusively." The point is that it is not proper Aramaic.
I am largely copying from "A New Look at the Language Jesus Spoke." You are right about that.