John 9:3?

[Jasmine-FL]

Hi guys,
I was looking at John 9:3 and something ocurred to me. Our traditional English versions read:

"Jesus answered, "It was neither that this man sinned, nor his parents; but it was so that the works of G-d might be displayed in him."

I've always struggled with this one cause it sounds like G-d made the guy blind on purpose so that Jesus could heal him. So I went to the Peshitta. It reads:

"0hl0d Yhwdb9 hb Jwzxtnd f0 Yhwhb0 fw 0=x wh f (w4y Jwhl rm0"

According to our concordance, "f0" may indeed mean "but", but it may also mean, "wail" or "lament aloud", so I was wondering if this passage could read, instead:

"Jesus answered, "It was neither that this man sinned, nor his parents. Behold, in him who cries will be displayed in works of G-d."

Is this linguistically possible? If so, I'd be much more comfortable with it. <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/happy.gif" alt="" title="Happy" /><!-- s -->

Luv,
~J~

[gbausc]

Shlama J,

f0 is not p0 [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]p0[/font];
It is [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]0l0[/font] abbreviated in English characters ; the "f" stands for final L0 "[font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]0l[/font]"
[font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]p0[/font] cannot mean "wail,cry".


Blessings,

Dave