01-18-2005, 03:32 AM
Paul,
I think this verse may show the superiority of POT to the MT. Really, if one thinks about the way it is written in the MT it is an impossibility if one believes in the inerrancy of scripture.
If one rejects the Documentary Hypothesis then this verse makes perfect sense in the POT and the LXX. If one accepts the Documentary Hypothesis then the MT makes sense.
The "higher critics" believe that the entirety of the Pentateuch was written several hundred years after Moses died and the "Levitcal Priesthood" was not practiced until about the time of Josiah. This means that it would be perfectly acceptable for David's children, who were not of a Levite line, to function as priests at that time.
However, previous to David the OT absolutely condemns the ordination of the non-Levites to the priesthood. Jereboam was punished for doing this; for ordaining non-Levites to be priests.
If one rejects the Documentary Hypothesis and believes that Moses did write the vast majority of the Pentateuch then the Levitical Priesthood was established several decades before David's time and thereby excluding his children from functioning as priests; a fact confirmed by the POT and the LXX.
Is there a reliable English translation of the POT? Can we trust Lamsa's translation of the POT? I do not trust his translation of the PNT.
Good to hear from you again my friend,
Keith
I think this verse may show the superiority of POT to the MT. Really, if one thinks about the way it is written in the MT it is an impossibility if one believes in the inerrancy of scripture.
If one rejects the Documentary Hypothesis then this verse makes perfect sense in the POT and the LXX. If one accepts the Documentary Hypothesis then the MT makes sense.
The "higher critics" believe that the entirety of the Pentateuch was written several hundred years after Moses died and the "Levitcal Priesthood" was not practiced until about the time of Josiah. This means that it would be perfectly acceptable for David's children, who were not of a Levite line, to function as priests at that time.
However, previous to David the OT absolutely condemns the ordination of the non-Levites to the priesthood. Jereboam was punished for doing this; for ordaining non-Levites to be priests.
If one rejects the Documentary Hypothesis and believes that Moses did write the vast majority of the Pentateuch then the Levitical Priesthood was established several decades before David's time and thereby excluding his children from functioning as priests; a fact confirmed by the POT and the LXX.
Is there a reliable English translation of the POT? Can we trust Lamsa's translation of the POT? I do not trust his translation of the PNT.
Good to hear from you again my friend,
Keith