Help with translation of 1 cor 15:29

[gbausc]

Shlama Jing,

That is the plain meaning of the text; however, there is considerable controversy
over this text. Mormons accept this as the plain sense and apparently practice vicarious baptism as effectual in cleansing sin and regenerating the souls of those for whom they are baptized.
Others, such as Baptists, explain it this way:"Baptism (immersion in water)is a symbol of death, burial and resurrection.If there is no resurrection, then baptism has no meaning."
That explanation is plausible, as far as it goes.Baptism is symbolic of death, burial and resurrection, in my opinion.
This explanation does not explain why Paul wrote this with these words: "baptized for the dead".
He did not say, "baptized as a symbol of death, burial and resurrection".
[font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]Fym Plx [/font] means "baptized in place of the dead" , or "baptized because of the dead (those who have died)".
Personally, I believe Paul is expounding a form of universalism in 1 Corinthians 15. I am a convinced universalist myself, not because I was trained in this doctrine; quite the contrary; I was trained to be a Pharisee - a militant , firebreathing fundamentalist at a notorious Christian university called Bob Jones University.

I have been an ordained Protestant minister since 1976 , and have studied the Bible earnestly since 1973 in Greek and Hebrew. The Peshitta NT as well as The Greek NT and Hebrew OT promises the salvation of the world in many places, as a result of the atoning work of Jehovah Messiah on the cross.

I hope I have not said too much; I do believe this text indicates that Paul referenced some Christians practiced substitutionary baptism for the dead, and that he referred to it as an orthodox practice, as authority supporting the doctrine of resurrection (whether spiritual or physical).
If he considered it heretical, he has fooled us all; he never said anything against this practice or doctrine when he had the chance !

Blessings,

Dave