12-30-2004, 11:26 AM
Hehe <!-- s:biggrin: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/biggrin.gif" alt=":biggrin:" title="Big Grin" /><!-- s:biggrin: -->
Hey now, I don't claim greek primacy there bud, but I don't claim aramaic primacy either, at least not this standardized text.
However, I do feel there could have been some sort of hebrew or aramaic text behind some of the writings in the new testament.
For example, Acts 10:38,
(LAMSA) Concerning Jesus of Nazareth, whom God anointed with the Holy Spirit and with power, and who, because God was with him, went about doing good and healing all who were oppressed by the devil.
(MURDOCH) concerning Jesus, who was of Nazareth, whom God anointed with the Holy Spirit and with power. And he it was, who went about and healed those that were suffering from evil, because God was with him.
Here's Paul's interlinear translation:
Concerning Jesus who was from Nazareth, whom GOD annointed with The Holy Spirit (or The Spirit of Holiness) and with power.
At first look, the parts that I've bolded look perfectly fine. But could this be better?
Let's take an example from the Hebrew Matthew texts:
Matthew 3:11
I immerse thee only in water unto repentence, but He who cometh after me is mightier than I, whose sandles I am unfit to carry, for He shall immerse thee in the fire of The Holy Spirit.
The flow of that right there, how it is combined is much better. Could that be applied in the preceding sections? Let's see, I'll use Paul's interlinear text again:
Concerning Jesus who was from Nazareth, whom GOD annointed with the power of The Holy Spirit.
Much better. I do believe there could have been a hebrew/aramaic text behind this, at least the thought patterns are there, but would I believe that the current peshitta text is the original? No, it seems to follow the greek too much. At least from what this monolinguist can tell. The Holy Spirit teaches us all things, so I gotta pay attention when He shows me something.
Hey now, I don't claim greek primacy there bud, but I don't claim aramaic primacy either, at least not this standardized text.
However, I do feel there could have been some sort of hebrew or aramaic text behind some of the writings in the new testament.
For example, Acts 10:38,
(LAMSA) Concerning Jesus of Nazareth, whom God anointed with the Holy Spirit and with power, and who, because God was with him, went about doing good and healing all who were oppressed by the devil.
(MURDOCH) concerning Jesus, who was of Nazareth, whom God anointed with the Holy Spirit and with power. And he it was, who went about and healed those that were suffering from evil, because God was with him.
Here's Paul's interlinear translation:
Concerning Jesus who was from Nazareth, whom GOD annointed with The Holy Spirit (or The Spirit of Holiness) and with power.
At first look, the parts that I've bolded look perfectly fine. But could this be better?
Let's take an example from the Hebrew Matthew texts:
Matthew 3:11
I immerse thee only in water unto repentence, but He who cometh after me is mightier than I, whose sandles I am unfit to carry, for He shall immerse thee in the fire of The Holy Spirit.
The flow of that right there, how it is combined is much better. Could that be applied in the preceding sections? Let's see, I'll use Paul's interlinear text again:
Concerning Jesus who was from Nazareth, whom GOD annointed with the power of The Holy Spirit.
Much better. I do believe there could have been a hebrew/aramaic text behind this, at least the thought patterns are there, but would I believe that the current peshitta text is the original? No, it seems to follow the greek too much. At least from what this monolinguist can tell. The Holy Spirit teaches us all things, so I gotta pay attention when He shows me something.