12-13-2004, 02:07 PM
December 13, 2004
Thanks for the comments.
If "fallen asleep" is an Aramaic idiom for "died" and "asleep" means "dead", why do the following verses have both words?
1Co 15:20 But now hath Christ been raised from the dead, the firstfruits of them that are asleep.
1Th 4:14 For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so them also that are fallen asleep in Jesus will God bring with him.
Can the two terms be equivalent or is there a deeper meaning suggested about the nature of death?
Otto
Thanks for the comments.
If "fallen asleep" is an Aramaic idiom for "died" and "asleep" means "dead", why do the following verses have both words?
1Co 15:20 But now hath Christ been raised from the dead, the firstfruits of them that are asleep.
1Th 4:14 For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so them also that are fallen asleep in Jesus will God bring with him.
Can the two terms be equivalent or is there a deeper meaning suggested about the nature of death?
Otto