05-14-2004, 02:25 PM
Akhi Dave,
For the sake of argument, let's just agree that St. Ephraem (of Edessa in Byzantium) used some western harmony exclusively. OK - for the sake of argument, I'm willing to just give you that.
Who cares? Because one person used it, that means that it predates the Peshitta? Or is more original than the Peshitta?
I have shown a dozen examples on the 101 forum of St. Aphrahat (of Beth-Nuhadra in Mesopotamia), who lived and wrote before Ephraem mind you, where he quotes the Peshitta exclusively against Old Scratch and whatever harmony you want to talk about.
When will either you or Yuri acknowledge that evidence? Don't call it "bias" and "pride", either. Address the evidence, please.
For the sake of argument, let's just agree that St. Ephraem (of Edessa in Byzantium) used some western harmony exclusively. OK - for the sake of argument, I'm willing to just give you that.
Who cares? Because one person used it, that means that it predates the Peshitta? Or is more original than the Peshitta?
I have shown a dozen examples on the 101 forum of St. Aphrahat (of Beth-Nuhadra in Mesopotamia), who lived and wrote before Ephraem mind you, where he quotes the Peshitta exclusively against Old Scratch and whatever harmony you want to talk about.
When will either you or Yuri acknowledge that evidence? Don't call it "bias" and "pride", either. Address the evidence, please.
+Shamasha Paul bar-Shimun de'Beth-Younan
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