Why did Rabulla make his own Aramaic gospels?

[Dave]

I'm not asking that you dismiss Ephraem because he belonged to the western arena. I'm asking that you just make note that in his western arena, many different textual families were circulating (for whatever reason.)

No problemo Paul. I would think that if he had a copy of Tatian's Diatesseron, then why would his be different in that respect? Were talking only a couple of centuries from it's creation, at a good guess. I can't see why Ephrems would be different than the original at that particular timeframe. Were talking 3rd century.

Such a mix-up. I must say there is some major drama in this.