09-14-2004, 11:18 PM
Dear Paul,
I'm new to this forum. I want you to know that I find this site very informative.
So is it correct to say that Lamsa correctly translated Acts 20:28 into "church of Christ"? You see, there are people (mainly greek primacists) who say that Lamsa mistranslated Acts 20:28.
I looked at the Acts 20:28 you provided, and if I'm not mistaken (I'm new to aramaic), the aramaic "0xy4md htd9l" correctly translates to "Church of Christ", right?
Thanks, and more power to your site!
Sincerely,
Ben
I'm new to this forum. I want you to know that I find this site very informative.
So is it correct to say that Lamsa correctly translated Acts 20:28 into "church of Christ"? You see, there are people (mainly greek primacists) who say that Lamsa mistranslated Acts 20:28.
I looked at the Acts 20:28 you provided, and if I'm not mistaken (I'm new to aramaic), the aramaic "0xy4md htd9l" correctly translates to "Church of Christ", right?
Thanks, and more power to your site!
Sincerely,
Ben