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Hi i have some questions and comments but its quite long.
Hello everyone i trust God is blessing the works of your hands. happy sabbath by the way.

Im new to this website as a matter a fact im new to the whole idea of reading an aramaic based Bible, I had heard of The Masoretic text Septuagint and even the Samaritan Pentateuch and the latin vulgate ( i havent really read those two though) i had heard of a "syriac" version i had had a curiosity to read it to my astonishment its very good i like it though i will admit it seems a bit different at the same time for example the use of Arameans in the Epistles is still a bit strange like my NIV version says in Romans 3:9 what shall we conclude then? Are we any better? Not At all we have already made the charge that Jews and Gentiles alike are all under sin. Lamsa's said Arameans instead of Gentiles though i think using the term gentiles in this sense would make more sense because hes writing to the Romans why use Arameans in that instance? i dont know what to make of it im not saying its wrong but im just saying it just sounds a bit different. why write in Aramaic to the Romans? the Gospels i can understand because that was the lingua franca there. even though i know he wrote to congegrations in Christ some of which were Jewish but its just harder for me to picture A lot of Aramaic speakers in Rome . I could see Greek speakers but as ive stated before i am willing to hear any opinions in this regard and i do not want to offend anyone with this opinion certainly if they are Assyrian. I am respectful and i do agree that The Peshitta is great and it cleared up a lot of mistranslations the KJV has but like i said im not used to hearing the term Aramean in the NT but my principal question was.

what script do you think that the disciples wrote in ? that is to say was it in Hebrew script? the aramaic portions in Daniel is written with Hebrew characters correct? the Aramaic texts in the dead sea scrolls was written in Hebrew characters aswell right? ( not 100% sure just making that assumption) so my question is , is the language characters the disciples would have used would they have been Hebrew or the Aramaic characters used in the texts we have today? Im just curious as to the characters because they probably used Hebrew to transliterate the Aramaic like the Dead Sea Scrolls and the portions of Aramaic in the OT. I have a tanakh at my house of course its the masoretic text but i dont know enough hebrew or aramaic to be able to distinguish it too well plus i once met a Jewish guy who told me he had an Aramaic and Hebrew class and i asked him and he said it was the same script but he studied a fifth century Jewish law well i can't remember the exact century but if i recall i think thats what he said. so thats my question would the disciples have written the peshitta nt in hebrew characters or the one that we read today. ( i dont know the correct name for it) But then again im sure that in Mesopotamia they wouldn't have used Hebrew characters to write Aramaic . By the way i want to thank everyone whos emailed me it did help with my previous questions i will email you all back . God bless bye
my name is Christian I am a Christian and im ready to listen and learn, aswell as give my points of view.

Messages In This Thread
Hi i have some questions and comments but its quite long. - by Christian - 02-21-2004, 05:28 AM
[No subject] - by Yochanan - 02-21-2004, 01:42 PM
[No subject] - by gbausc - 02-21-2004, 05:04 PM
[No subject] - by Zechariah14 - 02-22-2004, 03:00 AM

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