02-16-2004, 05:19 PM
Shlama lukhon!
I have some questions regarding the Khaboris manuscript and whether it's existence clarifies, enhances or supports other manuscripts including the Peshitta.
The claim of a book I have read on the subject (Khaboris Manuscript put out by the Foundation of Human Understanding) is that the phonic dots (vowel markings) included in the Khaboris codex lend a different interpretation to some of the words we have hitherto used in previous translations. Of course we encounter the same problem in the Hebrew as it was also originally written without the nikud markings...hence the different possible interpretations. I submit the following for your commentary and I especially would ask for the commentary of Paul Younan (whom I pray is in good health).
ex.1 In Mat. 5:3 the word "poor" (misken) changes to "home" (masken) which then reads "Blessed is he whose home is in the Spirit"
ex.2 In Mat. 5:48 the word for "perfect" (gmeer, gmeerii) would be rendered "all inclusive"? As opposed to gmera (perfect)? This one particularly distubs me as I see no such distinction in the Hebrew. "Gamour" means complete, period. But I must ask of course. Is there a difference or distinction to be made here?
ex. 3 In Mat. 4:5 the word for "devil" (adhilkarrsa) is rendered "uprightness".
I would appreciate help in sorting these things out. Anyone?
Yochanan
I have some questions regarding the Khaboris manuscript and whether it's existence clarifies, enhances or supports other manuscripts including the Peshitta.
The claim of a book I have read on the subject (Khaboris Manuscript put out by the Foundation of Human Understanding) is that the phonic dots (vowel markings) included in the Khaboris codex lend a different interpretation to some of the words we have hitherto used in previous translations. Of course we encounter the same problem in the Hebrew as it was also originally written without the nikud markings...hence the different possible interpretations. I submit the following for your commentary and I especially would ask for the commentary of Paul Younan (whom I pray is in good health).
ex.1 In Mat. 5:3 the word "poor" (misken) changes to "home" (masken) which then reads "Blessed is he whose home is in the Spirit"
ex.2 In Mat. 5:48 the word for "perfect" (gmeer, gmeerii) would be rendered "all inclusive"? As opposed to gmera (perfect)? This one particularly distubs me as I see no such distinction in the Hebrew. "Gamour" means complete, period. But I must ask of course. Is there a difference or distinction to be made here?
ex. 3 In Mat. 4:5 the word for "devil" (adhilkarrsa) is rendered "uprightness".
I would appreciate help in sorting these things out. Anyone?
Yochanan