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Dave B's Peshitta Bible Codes and Peshitta Primacy
#10
Dave and Forum:
I've done a preliminary study on the word(s) Anti Christ. It's a comparison between I John 2:18, 2:22, 4:3 and II John Verse 7.

I John 2:18[font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]fgd 0xy4m[/font]
I John 2:22[font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]fgd 0xy4m[/font]
I John 4:3[font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]fgd yh 0xy4m[/font]

The 1905 Syriac text, the 1891 Mosul text (Red Book), and the Crawford Manuscript all contain the Western Five, and all agree with the Peshitta in the spelling of I John 4:3.

However, in II John Verse 7, it is transliterated like the Greek pronunciation, antikhristos.
[font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]sw=syrky=n0w[/font]

If the book of II John is the autograph, why would [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]sw=syrky=n0w[/font] be used instead of [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]fgd 0xy4m[/font] the Semitic spelling of the phrase? I think it's because the text of II John is an Aramaic translation from the Greek.

Therefore, any "names of God" data based upon an Aramaic version of the Western Five, containing II Peter, II and III John, Jude and Revelation is flawed. Indeed, I firmly believe that the Western Five do have an original Aramaic autograph that has been lost after it was translated into Greek.

Kind Regards,
Stephen Silver
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Messages In This Thread
[No subject] - by gbausc - 02-13-2004, 07:05 PM
. - by drmlanc - 02-14-2004, 12:20 AM
. - by drmlanc - 02-14-2004, 12:23 AM
[No subject] - by gbausc - 02-14-2004, 02:39 PM
No Aramaic for the 5 ? - by gbausc - 12-12-2004, 01:18 PM
Re: No Aramaic for the 5 ? - by nashama - 12-12-2004, 09:45 PM
[No subject] - by gbausc - 12-13-2004, 02:37 PM
Anti Christ - by nashama - 12-14-2004, 01:58 AM
[No subject] - by gbausc - 12-14-2004, 12:40 PM
Same Author - by nashama - 12-14-2004, 10:23 PM
[No subject] - by gbausc - 12-14-2004, 11:42 PM

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