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Someone hates Maryah!!! :X >: :X >:
#11
Thats interesting, seeing as Hebrew makes quite a bit of use and Arabic makes enormous use of the definite article, I suppose one would have assumed that Aramaic being the 'father' of these languages would too. Yes you are right the Arabic comes from the Aramaic, I reckon it is possibly an Arabization of the word which became more 'absolute' once monotheism became established amongst the Arabians.

Some believe the hebrew word is 'eloah' while some say it is 'eloha' and thus conclude that the 'ha' at the end constitutes the 'the' - I can't see this myself as 'ha' would logically be a prefix not a postifix in my view.

Seeing as the Peshitta uses 'Mar-yah' which means 'the lord yah' then this means that 'Yahovah' is not translated as 'Lord' then. The correct meaning I think of 'Yahovah' is 'He who exists'. But why is 'Mar' put in front of 'yah' rather than just putting out 'Yahovah' in its correct form?

Actually one of the things I don't get is this interpretation of 'Yahovah' as 'lord' i.e. in the KJV and also I think in the Greek. 'Yahovah' does not mean 'lord' at all, its core is the meaning of 'being or existence'. :roll:
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Messages In This Thread
Someone hates Maryah!!! :X >: :X >: - by drmlanc - 09-16-2003, 09:45 AM
. - by drmlanc - 09-16-2003, 10:39 AM
Re: . - by Paul Younan - 09-16-2003, 11:31 AM
. - by drmlanc - 09-16-2003, 11:40 AM
Re: . - by Paul Younan - 09-16-2003, 03:54 PM
[No subject] - by Craig - 09-16-2003, 04:14 PM
[No subject] - by Paul Younan - 09-16-2003, 04:46 PM
. - by drmlanc - 09-16-2003, 08:39 PM
[No subject] - by Gentile - 09-17-2003, 08:24 AM
[No subject] - by Paul Younan - 09-17-2003, 01:09 PM
[No subject] - by Gentile - 09-17-2003, 01:27 PM
[No subject] - by Paul Younan - 09-17-2003, 02:08 PM
[No subject] - by Gentile - 09-19-2003, 02:12 PM

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