10-05-2016, 06:31 PM
Nice!
Isn't the Greek case vocative rather than nominative?
This might be relevant: https://www.uni-bamberg.de/fileadmin/ger...cative.pdf
If so, couldn't ܦܝܠܝܦܐ simply be definite/emphatic in order to indicate address?
Isn't the Greek case vocative rather than nominative?
This might be relevant: https://www.uni-bamberg.de/fileadmin/ger...cative.pdf
Quote:In dialects with a morphological distinction between definite and indefinite nouns the vocative tends to be in the definite form. Thus, it appears as something like: “The child, come here!”. This is for example reflected in the Aramaic sentences embedded in the Greek text of the New-Testament.
If so, couldn't ܦܝܠܝܦܐ simply be definite/emphatic in order to indicate address?