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Best Greek primacy argument I found, until now. John 14:9
#2
Nice!
Isn't the Greek case vocative rather than nominative?
This might be relevant: https://www.uni-bamberg.de/fileadmin/ger...cative.pdf

Quote:In dialects with a morphological distinction between definite and indefinite nouns the vocative tends to be in the definite form. Thus, it appears as something like: “The child, come here!”. This is for example reflected in the Aramaic sentences embedded in the Greek text of the New-Testament.  

If so, couldn't ܦܝܠܝܦܐ simply be definite/emphatic in order to indicate address?
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RE: Best Greek primacy argument I found, until now. John 14:9 - by sestir - 10-05-2016, 06:31 PM

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