Possible Error in Peshitta 1Co. 5:8? - Leavened Bread

[gregoryfl]

I have seen the same from my studies of this as well, and agree that it is true. I grew up being taught that the 'Last Supper' was a Passover sedar, but it was not, and the text plainly says so.

Ronen

Interesting...

So, how should Matthew 26:17 be understood?

And on the first day of unleavened bread, the disciples came to Jesus, and said to him: Where wilt thou that we prepare for thee to eat the Passover ?

From the purely grammatical examination, the phrase ביומא דיו, (but in the day) in the Greek is τη δε (yet to the). This is an idiomatic expression meaning 'yet regarding' or 'but in reference to', or something similar to that. The Greek expression in particular reflects this nuance of meaning from the Aramaic. Not knowing this (willingly or otherwise) has led to much argumentation over the alleged contradiction between this account and John's, which plainly refers to the supper they were eating as being קדם עאדא דפצחא [before or near the feast of the Passover]. (Jn 13:1)

I therefore read the text in this way:

But regarding the time of the first of unleavened bread, the disciples came to Jesus, and said to him: Where do you desire that we prepare for you to eat the Passover?

Understanding this makes sense out of what has confused many, including myself, and makes more sense than having them prepare to eat the Passover on the first day of unleavened bread, which would have been a day where no work could be done, and passover having been eaten the night before, according to the Tanakh.

This would be why early believers eating the last supper meal, as Thirdwoe pointed out, would have used leavened bread, as the Last supper happened the evening before passover and the days of unleavened bread.

Ronen