agapao and phileo - a split word? hopefully...

[judge]

If there is not one verse where this variant exists, we are in trouble. Then it would be a strong argument for Greek primacy. .

I dont think it follows that this is a strong case for greek primacy.
For it to be a strong argument, there must be some need. There is necessity that in every istance of a possible split it would have occurred.
What would be expected IMHO is that in some possible instances we splits and in other possible instances we dont.
This is what we see when we compare the greek and Aramaic.